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Cyber Security

How can I interpret a statement against RSA 4096?

Asked by Anil Jha Apr 4, 2022 1.2K views 1 answer
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While I'd agree that double-sized RSA keys may pose more problems than the gain in security possibly justifies, I am having problems understanding the argument made here:


They state that RSA2048 corresponds to about 112 bits of security and RSA4096 to about 140 bits, and they state that the 28 bits improvement is "marginal". But the way I understand this, is that the conversion from "key bits" to "security bits" is that it (as an estimate) takes ~2112 operations to crack a 2048 bit RSA key and ~2140 operations to crack a 4096 bit RSA key. So in my eyes that still means that if they™ routinely solve the RSA2048 problem in one seconds by throwing all their CPU power at it, it would still take several years for the RSA4096 key. (Or: be slightly less paranoid and replace "one second" with "one minute" and "several years" becomes "several centuries").


Why would such differences still be called "marginal"?

Maybe the answer is that 112 or 140 bits is only for some brute-forcing (even though the naive brute force would be something like 1024 vs 2048 bits)2048 bits) - but wouldn't that rather imply that these numbers are inadequate to begin with as a means to describe the complexity/security?

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